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On 24 Feb 2023, at 08:36, Bryan Sanctuary <bryancs...@gmail.com> wrote:If anyone copied here does not want to get these, please let me know and i will remove you and apologize for including you.Hi MarkI agree it is a linear relationship. As I say, your expression is the way I look at how various contributions from pol and coherence are related. In my program I calculated the two complementary parts separately, giving values that are independent of how many clicks are actually produced.In real experiments, sometimes there is more of one than the other, and the experimental clicks are all accounted for with a probability for each. To me this is clear and accounts for the experimental results, click by click.It also shows that Richard's last objection, dividing my result by two, is not validated. He has exhausted all his objections, but I invite him to have a go at trying to show my work is flawed.The next part to understand is the difference between polarization clicks and coherence clicks. I suggest a filter to separate them, but the important point is to show that depending on the difference between the filter settings of Alice and Bob, one is favoured over the other.The fundamental physical idea is what I explained before and for which there is ample evidence from other experiments. That is, spins decoupling and coupling occurs as a function of field (filter settings). The coherence state forms from the coupling of the two spin 1/2 to give a coherent spin 1, and this is maintained at filter settings that differ by pi/4. As the difference moves to pi/2 or to zero, that coherence decouples and the coherence is lost leaving only polarized states.That is the mechanism. I requires a lot of changes to our understanding of the usual spin of 1/2 that is measured, but it is all well based in QFT.I am working on wording in my papers all the time, and I hope that my pedagogical videos will spell things out.In the meantime, I hope you agree that your distribution of pol and coh is one step to accepting my approach. I very much appreciate your input and tenacity which helps me in clarifications and suggest better ways to put these ideas across.Thank youBryanOn Thu, Feb 23, 2023 at 10:45 AM Mark Hadley <drmark...@gmail.com> wrote:Dear Bryan,That was a good summary apart from one sentence.It's a linear relationship. It can't be anything else. The correlation moves from pol to col as the fraction shifts from one to the other.It's not just about combining correlations. It's true for the average values of any complementary populations that are mixed.CheersMarkOn Thu, 23 Feb 2023, 13:44 Bryan Sanctuary, <bryancs...@gmail.com> wrote:Hi MarkI now have your figure and I think it agrees with me. If we have only pol, then i get the pol correlation. If we have only col and no pol, then i get only coh correlation. The last equation says some pol and some coh and you add them. The prefactors simply gives the intensity of each.The ratios say over Ntot coincidences, sometimes you have one and sometimes you have the other in those ratios. But you never have the two together. If you filtered and collected them in separate bins then the number of coincidences are divided in those ratios between those bins. Then the two correlation are obtained separately and accumulate as the sum.If you have 3/4 pol and 1/4 coh that does not mean you multiply pol by 3/4 and coh by 1/4, it just means you have more coincidence from pol and fewer from coh.I think that is consistent with what I am saying.BryanOn Thu, Feb 23, 2023, 10:30 Mark Hadley <drmark...@gmail.com> wrote:Dear Richard and Bryan,Yes a trivial error on equation 3. I've corrected that.And I have changed the result to deal with cases where the p and e populations are unequal.It's straightforward algebra. And gives a sensible result. Bryan was right to start with a definition of correlation. That is what I have done.Bryan,Can you follow and agree with this derivation?ThanksMarkOn Thu, 23 Feb 2023, 04:56 Richard Gill, <gill...@gmail.com> wrote:Dear Bryan, MarkSorry, I first sent this to Udi and Bryan, by mistake. Another try.Bryan: When we calculate correlations we divide by the number of pairs of particles, not the number of particles.Mark: your handwritten note contains an obvious misprint on line 3 I think, but I agree with your conclusionTo Bryan again, all of Mark’s “N”s are numbers of particle pairs. In his line 1, N_tot is the total number of particle pairs.A particle pair can be of type pol, or of type cohThe two particles of a pair either lead to the same outcome or they lead to opposite outcomes.Mark: do you agree that your line 3 is wrong? Perhaps you should correct it for Bryan.RichardPS I’m not sending this email to Jarek’s group because Jarek and other members of his group are getting annoyed by all the messages about Bell’s theorem. Jarek’s group is not about Bell’s theorem, it is about the nature of time.
Dear Bryan and Richard,So I have produced relevant equations that all three of us agree on.They are simple and can't sensibly be anything else.Bryan, thank you for engaging with this so positively.CheersMark
On 24 Feb 2023, at 11:16, Bryan Sanctuary <bryancs...@gmail.com> wrote:
Hi RichardYou are categorically and unequivocally wrong. The two correlations are observed in coincidence experiments and over a large number of runs and different filter angle settings, are observed as a mixing of the two according to the probabilities. Here it is
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Let's try to do this in small steps.Do you have an equation just forN_+ /N _tot at A for a polariser angle a
So that is the fraction of up readings measured at Alice for any particular angle aQM gives all these fractions but without any explanation. I think you are claiming to explain it with your parameter theta. By the way, I suggest that you give it another letter, say lambda, to distinguish it from polariser angles.
As a matter of fact, your parameter theta, that has explanatory power in an EPR type experiment, is called a hidden variable. That's what all other scientists mean by hidden variables. Your challenge is hard enough without trying to use a different language. So I suggest that as an edit.
In the previous manuscripts you claim you can (must) add the two correlations. In fact, your claimed violation of the inequality depended on that.
Now you have accepted that a correlation obtained from two subensembles is the weighted average of the two correlations of the subensembles. The data you had in your previous manuscripts does not violate the inequality when combined through the weighted average.
I don't know how you generate the numbers you just quoted to me.
Please rewrite all of this into a single, well-explained, derivation.
If you want to convince us, this is what you need to do.
Best regards
Jan-Åke
On 2023-02-26 14:55, Bryan Sanctuary wrote:
Hi Jan-Åke
I have the papers up but they do not reflect this new point that has puzzled me for the last couple of months. Here is a draft of the new part, and the links are at the end
Bryan
<image.png>
<image.png>
On Sun, Feb 26, 2023 at 8:13 AM Jan-Åke Larsson <jan-ake...@liu.se> wrote:
Can you repost the link to your paper, I can't seem to find it anymore.
And the other correlations?
/JÅ
On 2023-02-26 13:12, Bryan Sanctuary wrote:
Dear Jan-Åke
Thanks for your question:
<image.png>
Bryan
On Sun, Feb 26, 2023 at 4:53 AM Jan-Åke Larsson <jan-ake...@liu.se> wrote:
Dear Bryan,
Please now recalculate the correlation from your model using your new-found formula
(that I tried to explain to you six months ago).
Best regards
Jan-Åke
On 2023-02-26 10:34, Bryan Sanctuary wrote:
Hi Richard
I hope I am not including uninterested people.
With Mark's expression, I can now unequivocally answer your insistence that I must average my two complementary contributions by dividing them by two. Here are the experimental clicks
<image.png>
which show the apparent violation of BI. Here are the same clicks rearranged to distinguish polarization from coherence
<image.png>
The two equations give exactly the same result, showing my approach is consistent with experiment, and your objection is answered.
This shows, BTW, that Bell's theorem has no relevance to qm. Non-locality plays no role in the violation. The apparent violation means that Nature obeys local realism.
Bryan
On Fri, Feb 24, 2023 at 5:55 AM Richard Gill <gill...@gmail.com> wrote:
Dear Bryan
So this is the formula now:
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On 26 Feb 2023, at 18:19, Mark Hadley <drmark...@gmail.com> wrote:
Dear Bryan,Your answer was incomprehensible. I have less idea than ever about what you are claiming. Much less whether you are correct.I thought you were going to explain the predictions of QM and violation of bells inequalities with a local realist theory. That was the bet as I understood it. To do that you need a theory that predicts measurement results and then we can check the correlations.QM already correctly predicts correlation distributions. It does so without anything spooky like non local signals. It is self consistent. An underlying explanation in terms of individual results is elusive and problematic.CheersMark
On Sun, 26 Feb 2023, 17:43 Bryan Sanctuary, <bryancs...@gmail.com> wrote:
Hi MarkI answer below:
Let's try to do this in small steps.Do you have an equation just forN_+ /N _tot at A for a polariser angle aIn my simulation, I generated clicks as coincidences, so I only got the coincidence probabilities N_(+-)/N_tot etc. .The program could be modified to extract the individual ratios and then combine them. I will eventually do that but it was unnecessary for the simulation of the correlations. If you look at the code you will see how I did it in terms of coincidences.So that is the fraction of up readings measured at Alice for any particular angle aQM gives all these fractions but without any explanation. I think you are claiming to explain it with your parameter theta. By the way, I suggest that you give it another letter, say lambda, to distinguish it from polariser angles.The only variable is the local value of theta which is used by everyone to define the states (Greenberger, D. M., Horne, M. A., Shimony, A., & Zeilinger, A. (1990). Bell’s theorem without inequalities. American Journal of Physics, 58(12), 1131-1143.) See equations A2,
<image.png>
My work is very much not about Bell's theorem and it would be confusing to change that theta to lambda. Hidden variables mysteriously complete the wave function, and mine needs no completion. They are simply different orientations on the Bloch sphere. Alice and Bob are correlated by a common theta at the source.As a matter of fact, your parameter theta, that has explanatory power in an EPR type experiment, is called a hidden variable. That's what all other scientists mean by hidden variables. Your challenge is hard enough without trying to use a different language. So I suggest that as an edit.Exactly, and I have done just that, but without any hidden variables. I am using the language of standard QM and not the language that Bell used simply because that leads to the wrong conclusion and misleading confusion in his theorem. Bell says that the only way to account for the violation is with non-locality. This statement by Bell is now incorrect:"If [a hidden-variable theory] is local it will not agree with quantum mechanics, and if it agrees with quantum mechanics it will not be local."I hope this is getting clearer to you all. It is not easy to change 60 years of Bell's misconceptions.I very much appreciate your comments and interest. It is a daunting task, I agree. One gobsmacking consequence of this is the idea of Dirac that predicts a matter-antimatter pair is replaced with a single particle with two axes of quantization. Think of the consequences that hole theory and sea of electrons is replaced by one particle in the Dirac field, not two particles with two states each.Bryan
CheersMark
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Dear Bryan,
I have printed out your 3 articles, and have had a brief look at them. Please tell me if I have misunderstood you, but my current understanding is as follows: You have constructed a formalism, generalizing Dirac's formalism, in which you can befine a property called hyperhelicity. Using this variable and this formalism, you claim that the usual spin components are not necessarily +1 and -1, and thus the argument behind the CHSH inequality breaks down.
As I see it, the statement that the spin components are +1 or -1 is not connected to any formalism, but to an experiment, the Stern-Gerlach experiment, which can be performed by either Alice or Bob, and has two possible outcomes. Just by conventon these can be called +1 and -1.
The question for me is: Can the hyperhelicity be measured in any way, by any experiment, by any observer? If not, it is just an inaccessible, hidden variable, in the same way as the unit spin vector n (I drop the hat in this e-mail). Note that the spin component in direction a can be defined in terms of this n, just take sign(cos(a,n)).
These spin components are accessible. To me, the distinction between accessible and inaccessible variables is the important one.
Is your hyperhelicity accessible?
Inge
Dear Richard, Zeilinger, Gisin and the like really should retract their papers, which are based on the mass delusion that quantum mechanics predicts
the EPR correlation and violation of Bell inequalities.
With best wishes,
Alexey
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On 27 Feb 2023, at 17:05, Алексей Никулов <nikulo...@gmail.com> wrote:
Dear Richard,
Zeilinger, Gisin and the like claim in their papers that quantum mechanics predicts the EPR correlation and violation of Bell’s
inequalities. Bell proposed his inequalities in order to prove that hidden variables theory cannot predict violation of these inequalities
in contrast to quantum mechanics. Therefore, if quantum mechanics does not predict the violation of Bell's inequalities, then Bell's
inequalities do not make any sense. Bell's inequalities do not make any sense, especially if such an absurd as the EPR correlation
postulated by Bohm in 1951 is really observed in the laboratory. Bohm postulated that the mind of Alice can create the spin state of not
only her particle but also the spin state of Bob’s particle. Quantum mechanics can predict the EPR correlation only if this absurd was
postulated.
With best wishes,
Alexey
Yes, I predict superluminal communication as possible!
No it doesnt. The |H_1V_2> quantum state is not a total spin zero state. Noether's theorem does not apply.
/Jan-Åke
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On 27 Feb 2023, at 20:35, anton vrba <anto...@gmail.com> wrote:
Let's agree to disagree. In my paper https://neophysics.org/p/1805) I explain how I arrived at my conclusion.------ Original Message ------From "Jan-Åke Larsson" <jan-ake...@liu.se>To "anton vrba" <anto...@gmail.com>Date 2/27/2023 7:31:13 PMSubject Re: [Bell_quantum_foundations] Let's remove Bell from experiments that demonstrate entanglement
No it doesnt. The |H_1V_2> quantum state is not a total spin zero state. Noether's theorem does not apply.
/Jan-Åke
On 2023-02-27 20:26, anton vrba wrote:
But Jan, Noether theorem requires that when the QWP is inserted in Alice's path and produces a right-circularly polarised photon the Bob's entangled photon must change to a left-circularly polarised photon to preserve the zero spin state before and after the QWP. Anything else and you are breaking conservation laws --- think about it.
RegardsAnton
------ Original Message ------From "'Jan-Åke Larsson' via Bell inequalities and quantum foundations" < Bell_quantum...@googlegroups.com>To "anton vrba" <anto...@gmail.com>; "Bell Inequalities and quantum foundations" < bell_quantum...@googlegroups.com>Date 2/27/2023 7:08:16 PMSubject Re: [Bell_quantum_foundations] Let's remove Bell from experiments that demonstrate entanglement
On 2023-02-27 20:02, anton vrba wrote:
<w0beixs4.png>
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On 27 Feb 2023, at 20:39, Richard Gill <gill...@gmail.com> wrote:
I agree with Jan-Åke. You said, Anton, that the photons are initially in a Bell entangled state.
Dear Bryan,
Thank you very much for your clarification. I am trying to understand.
So you look upon hyper-helicity as a part of reality, but at the same time beyond our capacity to measure. In some way this may seem to contradict Hervé Zwirn's Convivial Solipsism, which says that every description of reality should be relative to the mind of some observer. But may be there is no contradiction if we include the words 'description of'. Your papers aim at a desciption of hyper-helicity.
In your discussion with Jan-Åke, you describe the experimental Bell correlation as a linear combination of the contribution from polarisation and the contribution from coherence. The latter you say to me is generated from hyper-helicity, that is beyond our ability to measure.
So part of your message is linked to our limited ability. I have a similar message in my paper on the Bell experiment, which I attach here. Maybe our two views can be united in some way?
(There is a serious misprint in my paper: In (ii) in Theorem 1 'irreducible' should be replaced by 'reducible'. In the finite-dimansional case, by letting G be the cyclic group, and U a suitable reducible representation, this point can be automatically fulfilled.)
Inge
Dear Jan-Åke and Richard,
The 1972 Freedman Clauser experiment used a calcium light source that produced 2 circularly polarised photons as explained
[Simon, D.S., Jaeger, G. and Sergienko, A.V. (n.d.) Quantum Metrology, Imaging, and Communication.] who writes"The excited electron can decay in two steps, via this intermediate state. Two photons are emitted in the process. These photons may be emitted in any direction, but if we look only at photons emitted back-to-back, i.e. look at coincidence counts from detectors separated by 180◦, then angular momentum conservation requires the two photons to have the same circular polarization (left-handed or right-handed)." In other words the two photon production is nilpotent and the two photons are entangled to preserve the nilpotency. I do not like the plus sign in the figure because both sets of photons are not produced simultaneously, it is either R or L but not R+L.
We know from Freedman and Clauser that Alice receives a circularly polarised photon (either L or R) and converts it to a linearly polarised photon. The helicity, or spin, L or R does not influence polarisation direction probability which is 50:50. The action of polarisation by Alice has to be a nilpotent event, (the wave function collapse ensures this nilpotency) hence Bob photon is polarised oppositely before Bob observes it, hence the correlations.
Here we are dealing with photons that have quantum properties spin, energy=hf, polarisation and orbital momentum, the later not being considered here (and there are no hidden variables as Bryan and others want to claim). Physics explains the entanglement by the collapse of a wave function and gives no further reason why. I am investigating the why and postulating a preservation phenomenon demanded by Noether's theorem, which was invoked to explain the properties of the photons produced by the calcium light source, and why should it not continue to apply during the flight time of the two photons?
Now to Kwiat et al (DOI: 10.1103/PhysRevLett.75.4337) and all modern EPR-Bell experiments use spontaneous down conversion crystals. Similar to the two photon production of atomic cascades, the two photon production in down conversion crystals also has to be nilpotent, hence the two photons produced similarly are entangled as the photons of the calcium light source. The harvesting of photons at the intersection does not ensure entanglement, it only satisfies the Bell theorem requirement of not knowing, i.e. an either or selection. I say lets know and prove entanglement as a nilpotent requirement without invoking Bell. Looking at the below progression of light cone development of type II down conversion crystals we can harvest entangled photons with known polarisation very efficiently in (e), these photons were produced by a nilpotent down conversion process and are entangled to ensure future nilpotent actions, just as the calcium light source used by Freedman and Clauser. Please explain to me why physics decided that entanglement can only be at the intersection of the two light cones and not elsewhere.
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On 2023-02-28 13:49, anton vrba wrote:
This is not your proposal. Your proposal generates the product state |H1 V2>. That is the picture you sent.Dear Jan-Åke and Richard,
The 1972 Freedman Clauser experiment used a calcium light source that produced 2 circularly polarised photons as explained
But I'll discuss the Freedman and Clauser if you want. They generate the entangled state |R1 R2>+|L1 L2>=|H1H2>-|V1V2>.
[Simon, D.S., Jaeger, G. and Sergienko, A.V. (n.d.) Quantum Metrology, Imaging, and Communication .] who writes
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Dear Mark, Your statement “The mind of Alice is not part of any QM calculation” is extremely naive. Indeed the mind of Alice, Bob or any other
observer cannot be part of any calculation, since an influence of the mind on the state of the observed system is impossible not only to
calculate, but even to imagine. But this does not mean that quantum mechanics can describe some quantum phenomena, for example,
the Stern-Gerlach effect without the influence of the observer's mind on the state of the quantum system. I hope you know that each non-entangled spin state is an eigenstate in one direction and superposition of states in any other direction of
the real three-dimensional space. For example,
|+>_{z1} = cos f/2 |+>_{z2} + sin f/2 |->{z2} (1)
is the eigenstate along the z1 axis and superposition of state along the z2 axis, f is the angle between z1 and z2. This state jumps into the
eigenstate along the z2 axis and superposition of state along the z1 axis
|+>_{z2} = cos f/2 |+>_{z1} - sin f/2 |->{z1} (2)
when Alice sees with the probability |cos f/2|^2 that the particle deviated upwards along the z2 axis.
What other than the mind of Alice could change the spin state of the particle?
With entangled spin states, it is even more absurd. Spin states of particles A and B of the EPR pair
|EPR> = (|A+,B-> + |A-,B+>)/2^0.5 (3)
cannot exist before the first observation one of the particles. The first observation of spin projection in any direction of any particles will
give spin up |+> with the same probability 0.5 in contrast to non-entangled particles (1) or (2) having spin state.
Jan-Åke understands that “The individual photons are not in either R or L, they do not, as individual particles, have a definite
polarization”, see his last letter to Anton. But for some reason he does not understand that it is completely absurd when the physical
theory postulates that the mind of the observer can create a quantum state during observation. Einstein understood that this is absurd.
Therefore, he said “I like to think that the moon is there even if I don't look at it” explaining his negative attitude to quantum mechanics.
The absurdity in the understanding of quantum mechanics has only increased over time. If, according to the Dirac jump postulated in
1930, the mind of the observer can create a state only of the observed particle, then Bohm in 1951 expanded the omnipotence of the
mind by postulating that the mind can create the states of both particles of the EPR pair, regardless of the distance between them,
observing only one particle. Quantum mechanics cannot predict the EPR correlation and violation of Bell’s inequalities without this
omnipotence of the mind postulated by Bohm.
John Bell said in his talk 1989 “Against 'measurement'” about N.G. van Kampen: “He dismisses out of hand the notion of von
Neumann, Pauli, Wigner — that 'measurement' might be complete only in the mind of the observer”. Most people cannot understand
that quantum mechanics is an absurd theory since they, like N.G. van Kampen, dismisses out of hand the notion of von Neumann,
Pauli, Wigner — that 'measurement' might be complete only in the mind of the observer.
With best wishes,
Alexey
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Dear Richard, I understand perfectly well that most people nowadays understand under “quantum mechanics” what that has nothing to do with
quantum mechanics. A catastrophic regression of physical thinking is observed now. The reason for this regression is the rejection of
realism by the creators of quantum mechanics because of their false confidence that we can explain any phenomena. The same false
confidence is evident in your question “How can I explain violation of Bell inequalities?” Before trying to explain the violation of the
Bell inequalities or the EPR correlation, if they are observed, it is necessary to explain the Stern-Gerlach effect, without the trick with
‘observation’ or ‘measurement’. So far, no one has managed to do this.
You understand that Bell inequalities are derived under the assumption of local hidden variables. But you do not understand that no
theory of hidden variables is possible without the trick with ‘measurement’. Therefore, you cannot understand that Bell's inequalities,
at best, can only prove that the trick with ‘measurement’ cannot be successful, since the measurement is local, and it is necessary to use
the trick with ‘observation’ that is non-local. But those who really understood quantum theory, such as Einstein and Schrodinger, and
without Bell's inequalities, knew that the trick with ‘observation’ cannot be replaced by a trick with ‘measurement’.
With best wishes,
Alexey
Dear Anton “vrba”,
I just saw your comment to Jan-Åke and Richard. I would like to comment the following points on your email:
1. “I do not like the plus sign in the figure because both sets of photons are not produced simultaneously, it is either R or L but not R+L”.
First, let me restrict my comments to photons. Simultaneity can be theoretically defined but, experimentally, there is a subtlety: If the experimental conditions are such that two events happen within the same time window, they are “simultaneous”. If this time window is reduced continuously and the coincidences are still there, the events are simultaneous, up to that measured condition. Yes, it is a pragmatic definition, but difficult to bypass.
2. “The harvesting of photons at the intersection does not ensure entanglement, it only satisfies the Bell theorem requirement of not knowing, i.e. an either or selection”.
Again, what is called an “intersection” in this case, it is also tied up to the experimental conditions. Photons birthplace in a crystal cannot be defined better than the focused region of the laser beam creating them. This means a position uncertainty – and a momentum one as well. If they cannot be separated, by a time or space filter, harvesting happens in an entanglement condition.
Furthermore, the indistinguishability condition for two photons it is identical to say that the photons are optically coherent. [PRA vol 47, No 3, 2293 (1993)]
3. “Please explain to me why physics decided that entanglement can only be at the intersection of the two light cones and not elsewhere. That is delusional and inconsistent! “
It is my understanding that you are talking about Type II down-conversion, where two distinct cones are created, each cone with a given polarization. At the cone intersection, the wave stated can be written as an entangled polarization state (under the condition of position indistinguishability of the two photons), but not at any other point. Twin photons can also be entangled in momentum in other places that satisfy phase matching conditions, but polarization entanglement, only happens at the crossing of the two cones. [see Fig. 1 on PRA 80, 063833 (2009), that discuss the wave state. For the phase matching for all crystal classes, see PRA vol 76, 033821 (2007)].
What is also true and puzzling is that, differently from Type I down-conversion, Type II only allows PARTIAL total momentum conservation (from laser to down-converted photons. This is derived in PRL 85, No 2, 286 (2000). Basically, Type II down-conversion does not have azimuthal symmetry along the laser beam – that is a condition for total angular momentum conservation.
The implications of non-conservation of momentum are yet to be fully understood.
Regards,
Geraldo
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Dear Bryan, dear Richard, dear all (and dear Alexey, sorry, I think your model is too simple).
I am trying to understand your model, Bryan, and I am trying to understand the bet between you and Richard. As I see it, the discussion should not be about the mathematics, which you have clarified to me, at least to a sufficient degree, but about the simple statement:
Hyper-helicity is an element of reality.
To me, this statement is not very different from the statement:
The spin vector n(hat) is an element of reality.
So let us for simplicity start with the last statement. I see quantum mechanics as a model, but a good model of reality. In this model, the spin vector has no place, only the component in some fixed, chosen direction. A model where the spin vector does have a place, is a model where we can draw this spin vector, and in a geometric figure draw its component. I think that this model is simply too simple, it cannot explain several real phenomena.
Then go back to hyper-helicity. It has no place in the ordinary quantum model, in the version due to Dirac, where SU(2) is the basic symmetry group. It can be defined in Bryan's model, where SU(2) is replaced by quaternian symmetry. So, similar to the spin vector case, it is a question which model should be chosen. In my opinion, and I think this opinion is shared by Richard, ordinary quantum mechanics is a good enough model, it can explain most of the phenomena that we know of.
Bryan, what you have to convince us about, is that your model is a better model, it can explain more real phenomena. I think that 'reality' is a too big and complicated notion, and so is 'element of reality'. It is all connected to our models, and which model to choose.
In my own papers I try to argue that a simpler version of of the quantum model is sufficient to explain most phenomena: Let the state notion be limited to ket vectors that are eigenvectors of some Hermitean operator. In my published paper 'On Reconstructing parts of quantum theory from two related maximal conceptual variables' ( paper for which a technical correction note will appear soon), I have argued that in this model version, 'paradoxes' like the Schrödinger cat paradox are avoided. It also leads to a simple interpretation of state vectors: They are in one-to-one correspondence with a question: 'What is theta?/what will theta be if we measure it?' together with a sharp answer 'theta=u'. Here theta is a maximal accessible variable taking a discrete set of values. It is connected to the physical world in some given context, but it may also be connected to the mind of an observer or to the joint minds of a group of communicating observers.
If the variable is not maximal, the same interpretation can be given to the eigenspaces of the relevant operator.
So to my main point: It is not a question of reality or not reality, it is a question about which model we use to describe reality. Some models are too simple; some models may be too sophisticated.
This is my view.
Inge
Dear Austin,
Thank you for your comments. Just a brief response here; I can response in more detail later when you take up my more general issue on the complexity of models.
I do not in any way deny the superposition of states, but I do not think that all superpositions lead to meaningful state vectors. I want to concentrate on state vectors that are eigenvectors of some meaningful operator, and I think that this is enough in most context.
Take entanglement, for instance. The ordinary singlet vector is an eigenvector of the operator determined by the variable in the 4-dimensional Hilbertspace n_A dot n_B, where n_A is the spin vector of Alice's particle, and n_B is the spin vector of Bob's particle. These spin vectors are inaccessible to any observer, but the dot product is accessible to an observer Charlie, which tries to model the results of Alice and Bob. Specifically, this operator has the eigenvalues -1 and -3, and Charlie is in the eigenstate corresponding to the eigenvalue -1, which implies that to him, the response of Bob in any fixed direction must be opposite to the response of Alice on the same direction.
I look forward to your further comments.
Inge
Dear Austin again,
For a reference to the concrete results that I gave for the singlet vector, and a further discussion, see Leonard Susskind and Art Friedman (2014). Quantum Mechanics. The Theoretical Minimum, pp. 163-181, in particular Exercise 6.9, p.181.
Inge
Dear Austin,
I will be busy today, but will try to answer you tomorrow.
Inge
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Dear Mark, dear Austin, dear all,
As a statistician I have worked for more than 10 years trying to understand the foundations of quantum mechanics. Now I seem to have reached some sort of a goal.
As I see it, QM is a model, and a good model in order to understand the world. It is concerned with our endeavor to achieve knowledge of the world. At the outset we can assume a physical context, some physical variables in this comntext, and an observer A. Then make the following 4 postulates:
Postulate 1: Every physical variable in this context has a paralell existence in the mind of A.
Now call some of the variable accessible to A. Intuitively, this means that A has the possibility to measure the variable as accurately as he wishes. Mathematically, I only require
Postulate 2: If theta is accessible to A, and lambda is some fixed function of theta, then lambda is accessible.
Now I come to my main model assumption:
Postulate 3: In the given context there exists an inaccessible variable phi such that all the accessible ones are functions of phi.
As an example, we can let phi be the unit spin vector of some particle, say the qubit situation with spin 1/2, and define the accessible spin component in direction a as sign(cos(phi,a)), taking the values -1 and +1.
To go further, we need some definitions.
Definition 1. The accessible variable theta is called maximal if the following holds: If theta is a function of another variable psi, and this function is not bijective, then psi is not accessible.
In other words, theta is maximal under the partial order defined by taking functions.
Postulate 4: There exist maximal accessible variables.
The situation sketched here has been discussed from various points of views in the book [1], where the variables are called e-variables. A breakthrough came with the article [2], where the variables are called conceptual variables because they somehow exisr in the mind of A. An important correction to [2] was accepted today. I work now with summing up the whole theory in a new article [3]. The results turn out to be very simple in the case where theta takes a finite number of values. The following theorem will be demonstrated in [3]:
Theorem 1. Assume postulates 1 to 4, and that there exist two different maximal accessible variables theta and eta, each taking n values. Then there exists a Hilbert space H describing the situation, and every accessible variable will have a self-adjoint operator in H associated with it.
This is the starting point for developing QM from a new angle. Further results will be developed in [3], partly building upon previous published papers:
- The eigenvalues of the operator associated with theta are the possible values of theta.
- The variable theta is maximal if and only if all eigenvalues are non-degenerate.
- The two variables theta and eta are related: there exists a function f on phi-space and a transformation k in phi-space such that theta=f(phi) anf eta=f(k phi).
From this basis, the whole foundation of QM in the finite-dimensional case can be built up. A theory of continuous variables can in principle be developed by taking limits from the finite case.
The implications for the Bell experiment are discussed in [4]. An important observation is thet the physical variables in this theory can be replaced by decision variables. This gives a new foundation of quantum decision theory [5]. Unfortumately, Foundations of Physics would not print my important correction.
Another important observation is the following: The observator A can be replaced by a group of communicating observers, and the theory is still valid.
But the observer A can in principle be any human being. In a given (physical) situation, this largely detemines what we have in our minds, the basis for our actions, in particular for our written and spoken words. Our mental model. I have a model of this kind in my mind when I write this. In paricular, according to [4], my mind is limited, and I have to convince other people that this all makes sense.
In a similar way, I look at mental models as something which in a given situation lies behind everybody's action. In this sense, I personnally regard Alexey's model as too simple: In a series of long contribuions he tries to convince us about what he calls cencorship of believers in QM, and he uses word as 'unthikable fantasies'. In my view, these contrubutions may have prevented some of us to enter more interesting discussions.
What are my views on the interpretation of quantum mechanics? I support a general epistemic interpretation, where QBism is a special case. But there is also a relation to ontology [6]. In particular, Rovelli's interpretation seems to go together with mine. I also rely heavily on Hervé Zwirn's Convivial Solipsism: Every description of the world must be relative the mind of some observer. But people can communicate. The single observer A can be replaced by a group of communicating observers.
References:
[1] Helland, I.S. (2021). Episemic Processes. A Basis for Statistics and Quantum Theory. 2. edition. Springer
[2] Helland, I.S. (2022). On reconstructing parts of quantum theory from two related maximal conceptual variable. International Journal of Theoretical Physics 61, 69. Correction to appear.
[3] Helland, I.S. (2023). An alternative derivation of quantum states and operators. In preparation.
[4] Helland, I.S. (2022). The Bell experiment and the limitation of actors. Foundation of Physics 52,55.
[5] Helland, I.S. (2023). A simple quantum model linked to decisions. Foundation of Physics 53,12.
[6] Helland, I.S. (2021). Epistemological and ontological aspects of quantum theory. arXiv: 2112.10484 [quant-ph].
Dear Richard,
You understand too quickly. And that means you don't understand what I'm trying to explain to you. In fact, you do not understand, but compare it with what you are used to and what you believe in. Because of this you do not understand even the obvious fact that the idea of a quantum computer is false because the results of its calculations cannot exist. I will try to explain this fact to you as clearly and popularly as possible, and you try to understand it before making conclusions.
I hope you know that the result of the calculation of a quantum computer should be the probabilities P of observation, for example, the projection of spin on the chosen direction, for example the z axis. To find the probability P = n_{up}/n for each qubit, we must perform the same quantum calculation many times ‘n’ and determine how many times n_{up} the result ‘spin-up’ was observed during ‘n’ measurements. In order for probability P_{z} = n_{up}/n to make sense, measurements must be carried out in the same direction z and in the same spin state. The spin states are the same when they have their eigenstates in the same direction, for example z1. It is also necessary that the probability P_{z} = n_{up}/n in the direction z is uniquely determined in the spin state having eigenstates along z1. This uniqueness is provided by the operators of finite rotations of the coordinate system. In order for a given qubit to be in the same state with eigenstate along z1 after each of ‘n’ quantum calculations, this state and this eigenvalue must exist.
These requirements for the possibility of the existence of quantum computing results are met for spin states, but only when they are not entangled. I hope you know that states are not entangled when the expression for N qubits can be decomposed into factors describing each qubit.
It is obvious that the particles A or B in the EPR state
|EPR> = 0.5^{0.5}(|A+,B-> + |A-,B+>) (1)
cannot have eigenstates and the operators of finite rotations of the coordinate system cannot be applied to these particles since the first measurement of any particle in any direction will give ‘spin-up’ (+) with probability P1 = 0.5 according to (1). I draw your attention that the probability amplitude 0.5^{0.5} in (1) cannot depend on the direction in which spin projection of the first particle is measured since we cannot know which particle A or B will be measured first.
According to your belief in the EPR correlation the measurement of the second particle along the same direction z should give the opposite result with probability 1. Thus, the measurement of the first particle along z should give ‘spin up’ (+) or ‘spin down’ (-) with probability 0.5 and the measurement of the second particle along z should give ‘spin down’ (-) or ‘spin up’ (+) with probability 1. What can be the results of quantum computing here? The EPR state (1) describes at least the knowledge of the observer about results of measurements of the first and second particles. The entangled spin states with the number of qubits greater than two do not describe even the knowledge of the observer.
With best wishes,
Alexey
On 3 Mar 2023, at 11:02, Алексей Никулов <nikulo...@gmail.com> wrote:
Dear Richard,
You understand too quickly. And that means you don't understand what I'm trying to explain to you. In fact, you do not understand, but compare it with what you are used to and what you believe in. Because of this you do not understand even the obvious fact that the idea of a quantum computer is false because the results of its calculations cannot exist. I will try to explain this fact to you as clearly and popularly as possible, and you try to understand it before making conclusions.
I hope you know that the result of the calculation of a quantum computer should be the probabilities P of observation, for example, the projection of spin on the chosen direction, for example the z axis. To find the probability P = n_{up}/n for each qubit, we must perform the same quantum calculation many times ‘n’ and determine how many times n_{up} the result ‘spin-up’ was observed during ‘n’ measurements. In order for probability P_{z} = n_{up}/n to make sense, measurements must be carried out in the same direction z and in the same spin state. The spin states are the same when they have their eigenstates in the same direction, for example z1. It is also necessary that the probability P_{z} = n_{up}/n in the direction z is uniquely determined in the spin state having eigenstates along z1. This uniqueness is provided by the operators of finite rotations of the coordinate system. In order for a given qubit to be in the same state with eigenstate along z1 after each of ‘n’ quantum calculations, this state and this eigenvalue must exist.
These requirements for the possibility of the existence of quantum computing results are met for spin states, but only when they are not entangled. I hope you know that states are not entangled when the expression for N qubits can be decomposed into factors describing each qubit.
It is obvious that the particles A or B in the EPR state
|EPR> = 0.5^{0.5}(|A+,B-> + |A-,B+>) (1)cannot have eigenstates and the operators of finite rotations of the coordinate system cannot be applied to these particles since the first measurement of any particle in any direction will give ‘spin-up’ (+) with probability P1 = 0.5 according to (1). I draw your attention that the probability amplitude 0.5^{0.5} in (1) cannot depend on the direction in which spin projection of the first particle is measured since we cannot know which particle A or B will be measured first.
According to your belief in the EPR correlation the measurement of the second particle along the same direction z should give the opposite result with probability 1. Thus, the measurement of the first particle along z should give ‘spin up’ (+) or ‘spin down’ (-) with probability 0.5 and the measurement of the second particle along z should give ‘spin down’ (-) or ‘spin up’ (+) with probability 1. What can be the results of quantum computing here? The EPR state (1) describes at least the knowledge of the observer about results of measurements of the first and second particles. The entangled spin states with the number of qubits greater than two do not describe even the knowledge of the observer.
With best wishes,
Alexey
чт, 2 мар. 2023 г. в 21:20, Richard Gill <gill...@gmail.com>:
Alexei, you do not understand Nielsen and Chuang’s mathematics. Your question is adequately answered in their book.About Jaynes: in the very old paper by him which you cite he is struggling with the measurement problem,
I consider that the measurement problem is adequately solved from a mathematical point of view through a well-chosen Heisenberg cut, according to the principle developed by Slava Belavkin, his so-called non-demolition principle, see my expository paper on “eventum mechanics”.
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Dear Richard, You are in a hurry to understand again and do not want to think. That's why you didn't understand anything again. I have no doubt that
a number of qubits are measured simultaneously, many times. I tried to explain to you not how measurements are made, but that the
result of quantum computing cannot exist. Try to understand this and not draw conclusions without understanding.
You agree that “Entangled states of 2 or more qubits *do* describe the knowledge of an observer”. Now try to understand that it
logically follows that quantum computing is impossible without the observer's mind if entangled states describe only the knowledge of
an observer. I tried to explain to you that non-entangled spin states describe not only the observer's knowledge, but also real spin states
that can change in time between observations regardless of the observer's mind. This change in time of real spin states is the process of
quantum computing, which is possible if qubits describe not only the knowledge of the observer, but also real states that exist
independently of the observer's mind.
I have read Nielsen and Chuang. I got the impression that Nielsen and Chuang are mathematicians who have extremely naive notions
about quantum mechanics. Extreme naivety is their confidence that the Stern-Gerlach experiment gives evidence of the real existence of
qubits in Nature. To understand that this is foolishness, you need to know, as Bell knew, that it was experiments such as the
Stern-Gerlach experiment that forced the creators of quantum mechanics to abandon the description of Nature: ”Phenomena of this kind m
made physicists despair of finding any consistent space-time picture of what goes on the atomic and subatomic scale” [1].
[1] J.S. Bell, Bertlmann’s socks and the nature of reality. Journal de Physique, 42, 41-61 (1981).
With best wishes,
Alexey
Dear Richard, Your unflattering opinion of Ed Jaynes cannot refute the rightness of his understanding that quantum mechanics entangled reality with
our knowledge of reality. You yourself confirm this absurdity of quantum mechanics by now admitting, now denying that
“Entangled states of 2 or more qubits *do* describe the knowledge of an observer”. Your thinking is not clear and definite, as is the
thinking of most scientists who believe but do not understand quantum mechanics. This blind faith has led to monstrous consequences:
most scientists simply do not know how to think logically because of this belief.
7 journals did not accept my paper because science has become mass, and mass-man does not know how to think critically and
blindly believes in what the majority believes.
With best wishes,
Alexey
Alexey,
Please forgive me to say that your concept of reality may obscure your understanding of quantum mechanics.
Just to lead you to a strange land that (I imagine) does not fit into your vision of QM, think about a single photon state with several degrees of liberty. I should assume that spin (helicity) and polarization are acceptable to you. I believe I can add linear momentum as well. Let me also add orbital angular momentum L; each photon may carry values l=-{L …0 …L}.
There are quantum computation operations that act on these variables (we may call these operations “gates”). Due to the (assumed) entanglement between variable components, we may say that they are represented by “qubits”. [In case you don’t accept the notion of entanglement, this leads to a different discussion).
In a quantum computation operation (say, an optical quantum computer), the input is represented by qubits. For example, polarization can be a qubit, orbital momentum another qubit, and even space position (momentum) another qubit.
Each gate operation can act on the input qubits to produce a new state to be acted by the following gate. The final result, or output of quantum calculation, may be detector clicks (classical signals) representing the desired calculation.
In other words, the “calculation” is given by the evolution of states according to the gate “rules”. Different variables may influence each other on a complex way.
The gates act on the wave function “space”, Not just on the 3D space. The quantum “computer” circuitry is set on the 3D space, but the processing act on a multitude of variables. If one’s mind does not accept the wave function picture, written in a Hilbert space, where the operators act, things became very confused.
[If the notion of entanglement is not accepted, nothing said above makes sense, of course]
Geraldo
Dear Geraldo,
You do not take into account that in addition to your understanding of quantum mechanics, there are many other understandings that are
different from yours and even contradict it. Only known and recognized interpretations of quantum mechanics exist more than ten.
Unknown and unrecognized interpretations are many more. This chaos in understanding is a direct consequence of the adaptation of the
concept of reality to the possibility of describing paradoxical quantum phenomena by the creators of quantum mechanics. This chaos
proves once again the correctness of what ’cultured’ men about 1750 understood: our concept of reality should not depend on any
theories or phenomena. As Kant has understood, realism and determinism are regulative principles of our reason, which determines the
very possibility of empirical cognition of Nature.
Einstein, like Kant, understood that realism is ”the presupposition of every kind of physical thinking” rather than a claim which can be
disproved with any experimental results. According to Einstein’s understanding, the rejection of realism means the rejection of
physical thinking. The substitution of various and contradictory fantasies for physical thinking indicates that Kant and Einstein were
right.
You want to lead me to a strange land that (you imagine) does not fit into my vision of QM, and propose me to think about a single
photon state with several degrees of liberty. I must remind you once again that the concept of light quanta, which began to be called
photons, was introduced by Einstein in 1905. Anyone who thinks he understands what light quanta is should know what Einstein said to
his friend Michele Besso in 1951:“All these fifty years of conscious brooding have brought me no nearer to the answer to the question,
‘What are light quanta?’ Nowadays every Tom, Dick and Harry thinks he knows it, but he is mistaken”. The concept of light quanta is
so absurd that almost no one, not even Bohr, admitted it before the advent of quantum mechanics. Bohr and every Tom, Dick, Harry
have admitted this concept due to Born’s proposal to describe the knowledge of the observer about probability of results of upcoming
observation. But the author of this concept, Einstein, did not agree with such a solution to the problem of quantum dualism, which he
himself provoked, at the cost of abandoning realism.
To justify the rejection of realism Heisenberg has been calling the ‘old-fashioned’ attitude toward the problem of reality as dogmatic
realism and metaphysical realism: ”Dogmatic realism claims that there are no statements concerning the material world that cannot be
objectivated · · · actually the position of classical physics is that of dogmatic realism. It is only through quantum theory that we have
learned that exact science is possible without the basis of dogmatic realism. When Einstein has criticised quantum theory he has done
so from the basis of dogmatic realism” [1]. Einstein’s famous dictum ”I like to think that the moon is there even if I don’t look at it” is
a manifestation of dogmatic realism.
Dogmatic realism is not an extreme form of delusion according to Heisenberg: ”Metaphysical realism goes one step further than
dogmatic realism by saying that ’the things really exist’. This is in fact what Descartes tried to prove by the argument that ’God cannot
have deceived us’” [1]. Einstein would have said, ”I’m sure that the moon really exists even if I don’t look at it,” if he had followed
metaphysical realism. Einstein followed dogmatic rather than metaphysical realism since he was understanding the validity of Kant’s
avowal that ”it always remains a scandal of philosophy and universal human reason that the existence of things outside us (from which
we after all get the whole matter for our cognitions, even for our inner sense) should have to be assumed merely on faith, and that if it
occurs to anyone to doubt it, we should be unable to answer him with a satisfactory proof” [2].
The rejection of realism by the creators of quantum mechanics has led to a mass delusion, primarily because almost all scientists are
naive realists who cannot doubt that ’the things really exist’. You don't doubt even that polarization really exists, whereas creators of
quantum mechanics because of such quantum phenomena as the Stern-Gerlach effect “asserted that atomic and subatomic particles do
not have any definite properties in advance of observation. There is nothing, that is to say, in the particles approaching the magnet, to
distinguish those subsequently deflected up from those subsequently deflected down. Indeed even the particles are not really there” [3].
The illusion of the reality of a quantum computer became possible precisely because most scientists, being naive realists, did not
understand what the rejection of realism by the creators of quantum mechanics means. When you write “Each gate operation can act
on the input qubits to produce a new state to be acted by the following gate” you are sure a state can really exist. But this confidence of
yours contradicts quantum mechanics, at least in the case of the entanglement of our knowledge. The impossibility of the real existence
of entangled spin states follows from the mathematical fact that the operators of finite rotations of the coordinate system are applicable
only to non-entangled spin states.
The authors of the GHZ theorem [4] made an obvious mistake by not taking into account this obvious mathematical fact. The mistake was
so obvious that I was surprised that it could have been made when I noticed it. According to the expression for the GHSZ state (7) in [4]
‘spin up’ should be observed with the probability 1/2 in any direction of the real three-dimensional space, while according to the
Appendix F of all four particles of the GHSZ state have eigenstates along the same direction, measurement spin projections along which
should give ‘spin up’ with probability 1. This obvious mistake became possible since the authors of the GHZ theorem [4] did not
take into account that entangled spin states cannot have eigenstates since the operators of finite rotations of the coordinate system are
applicable only to non-entangled spin states. The expression (8) for the expectation value, on the base of which the GHZ theorem was
derived in [4], does not make sense, since the angles between the direction in which the spin projection is measured and the direction of
the eigenstate does not make sense if there cannot be an eigenstate. Thus, the authors [4] refuting realism made obvious mistakes since
even they are naive realists.
[1] W. Heisenberg, Physics and Philosophy, George Allen and Unwin Edition (1959).
[2] I. Kant, The Critique of Pure Reason, Cambridge Univ. Press (1998).
[3] J.S. Bell, Bertlmann’s socks and the nature of reality. J. de Physique 42, 41 (1981).
[4] D.M. Greenberger, M.A. Home, A. Shimony and A. Zeilinger, Bell’s theorem without inequalities, Amer. J. Phys. 58, 1131 (1990).
With best wishes,
Alexey
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Alexey,
Trying to make short a discussion about realism, in my view, if sensors (human or equipment) are able to show consistent measurements with repeated outcomes, the thing being measured can be assigned as “real”. As I said before, this concept of real or reality it is just a model in your mind, an odd flashing of neurons that gives you the sensation of consciousness – and that you, Alexey, have no clear idea of what it means.
Geraldo
Alexey,
“Realism has nothing to do with sensors”.
It seems that the idea of sensors -in the most general sense- is not important to you. On the other hand, for me, sensors define even what you call reality (and your dreams).
The recording of sensors is what defines the classical logs (or the “classical world”). Whenever outputs from a quantum processor are recorded, they became classical records (that can read over and over again). The quantum mechanics models are justified by these “classical” records. They match what is predicted by QM - and perhaps not by classical physics. QM and your real world are just models.
The wave state evolution (steps) within a quantum computer is not accessible to our sensors. However, the QM predictions about this evolution and the resulting final outcome justifies the model. It seems that your idea of reality does not fit QM.
“Realism (dogmatic according to Heisenberg) states that the moon exists
even if no one looks at it. Therefore, we must
explain how our mind
creates the moon when observing if we reject realism”.
“… we must explain …”
No need to! ... and, again: The recording of sensors is what defines the classical logs (or the “classical world”).
Geraldo
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On 10 Mar 2023, at 08:36, Mark Hadley <sunshine...@googlemail.com> wrote:
Dear Richard,A retro causal model has a chance to explain quantum theory (as does any contextual model). It could be a counterexample to BI. Just as the Bohm pilot wave is.The question is can such a model reproduce QM in a natural way.CheersMark
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Department of Electrical Engineering SE-581 83 Linköping Phone: +46 (0)13-28 14 68 Mobile: +46 (0)13-28 14 68 Visiting address: Campus Valla, House B, Entr 27, 3A:512 Please visit us at www.liu.se |
On 10 Mar 2023, at 15:12, Mark Hadley <sunshine...@googlemail.com> wrote:I agree with most of that. I'm using counterexample in a slightly different way.Any explanation will indeed look crazy. It will inevitably be a relaxation of causality. But if a simple universal principle comes forward that can be used to derive quantum theory, then it will be accepted. And yes it will have to make new testable predictions.The good news is that QM equations are the ONLY way to put a consistent probability structure on a context dependent theory.My own work is on 4 geons. I prove that the probabilities must be like QM in principle. My new predictions are no graviton and that Parity is conserved. What I lack is a microscopic detail of what happens in quantum experiments. But imagine proving the probabilistic outcomes of a dice throw from first principles.See:Www.DrMark Hadley.comCheersMark
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Dear all.
Can one find a new foundation of quantum theory, a foundation which ultimately leads to the full theory, but at the same time a foundation which can be explained also to persons that never have been exposed to the ordinary Hilbert space machinery?
My answer is yes. I have tried to discuss my approach in a book and in several published papers. Now I have collected all the mathematical arguments in a single article, attached here. It is not necessary to read this article, however. I will explain my model and some of my main results below.
Some background: Jim Al-Khalili from Surrey and I are guest editors for an issue of the journal Universe on the topic ‘Approaches towards Quantum Foundation’. This article is submitted to Universe as my Feature Article.
My basic notion is that of a variable. A variable can be a physical variable, a statistical parameter, a future data variable, a decision variable, or perhaps also other things. I divide the variables into accessible ones and inaccessible ones. Physical variables are accessible if we by some measurement can get as accurate values as we want to. In general, I only require that if theta is accessible and lambda is a function of theta, then lambda is also accessible. In a measurement situation the notions accessible/ inaccessible may be connected to the mind of some observer/actor or to the joint minds of a communicating group of actors.
Some examples:
1) Spin of one particle. An observer A can have the choice between measuring the spin in the x direction or in the z direction. This gives two related accessible variables in the mind of A. An inaccessible variable is the unit spin vector phi. In the qubit case, the spin component in any direction a is a simple function of phi: sign(cos(a,phi)), taking the values -1 or +1.
2) The EPR situation with Alice and Bob. For an independent observer Charlie, the unit spin components of both are inaccessible, say n_A and n_B. But it can be shown that the dot product of the two is accessible to Charlie: d =n_A . n_B. Specifically, one can show that Charlie is forced to be in an eigenstate for the entangled singlet state corresponding to d=-1. It is easy to show that this implies that for Charlie and for the measured components in some fixed direction a, the component of Alice is opposite to the component of Bob. Note that Charlie can be any person.
3) The Bell experiment situation. Look at the subsample of data where Alice measures her spin component in direction a and gets a response A, either -1 or +1, and where Bob measures in a direction b and gets a similar response B. Then A is accessible to Alice, but inaccessible to Bob. Similarly, B is accessible to Bob and inaccessible to Alice. For an independent observer Charlie, having all data, both A and B are accessible. But Charlie has his limitation as in 2) above, and this implies by Born's formula – anticipating this formula, for which a long series of arguments can be given - a fixed joint distribution of A and B. Again, Charlie can be any person. I have a paper on what this limitation implies for him, using my point of view.
4) The Monty Hall problem. An actor A opens a door, and gets a reward X. This reward is inaccessible to him before the door is opened, but accessible afterwards. His main problem is that he does not know anything about the state of the host and how he uses his knowledge. According to the Wikipedia article about Monty Hall there exists a quantum version. This has to do with the situation where A knows his X_1 after he has opened one door but does not know his X_2 after he has two choices, either keep his original choice or switch door. His inaccessible phi is the knowledge of the host.
5) A general decision problem with two alternatives. In the simplest case the actor A knows the consequences of both choices, they are accessible. But in more complicated cases, the consequences are inaccessible, and hence the consequence of his choice is inaccessible. Then an option can be to make a simpler sub-decision, where he knows the consequences.
All these examples can, I think, be coupled to my approach towards QM. I will now sketch the basic elements of this approach.
My point of departure is a statement of Hervé Zwirn’s Convivial Solipsism: Every
description of the world must be relative to the mind of some observer. Different
observers can communicate. A consequence of this is that physical variables also must
be assumed to have some ‘existence’ in the mind of an observer. In the following I will
take as a point of departure a concrete observer A. This will be assumed throughout
the following arguments but note that A can be any person.
Postulate 1: Assume that A is in some (physical) context. Every (physical) variable in
this context has a parallel existence in the mind of A.
The variables may be accessible or inaccessible to A. If theta is accessible,
A will, in principle in some future be able to find as accurate value of theta as he
likes. This is taken as a primitive notion. From a mathematical point of view, I only
assume:
Postulate 2: If theta is accessible to A and lambda= f (theta) for some function f , then lambda is also accessible to A.
The crucial model assumption is now the following:
Postulate 3: In the given context there exists an inaccessible variable phi such that
all the accessible ones can be seen as functions of phi.
In general, this postulate, taken together with some symmetry assumptions,
has far-reaching consequences. And these symmetry assumptions will be
shown to be satisfied in important cases, for instance when all accessible variables take
a finite number of values.
Now I introduce a partial order among my variables: lambda is less than or equal to theta if lambda=f(theta) for some function f. If theta is accessible and lambda is less than or equal to theta, then I assume that lambda is accessible.
Postulate 4: There exist maximal accessible variables relative to this partial ordering. For every accessible variable lambda there exists a maximal accessible variable theta such that lambda is a function of theta.
This can be motivated by using Zorn’s lemma and Postulate 3, but such a motivation is not necessary if Postulate 4 is accepted. Physical examples of maximal accessible variables
are the position or the momentum of some particle, or the spin component in some
direction.
These 4 postulates are all that I assume. Through some mathematical arguments I can prove in the case of variables taking a finite number of values:
Theorem: Assume that there relative to the mind of an observer A in some given context among other variables exist two different maximal accessible variables, each taking n values. Then there exists a n-dimensional Hilbert space H describing the situation, and every accessible variable in this situation will have a unique self-adjoint operator in H associated with it.
This is my starting point for developing the quantum formalism from simple postulates. Using the same 4 postulates in the finite-dimensional case, further results can be proved, among other things:
- The eigenvalues of the operator associated with theta are the possible values of theta.
- The accessible variable theta is maximal if and only if all eigenvalues are simple.
- The eigenspaces of the operator associated with one of several variables, say theta. are in one-to-one correspondence with questions of the form ‘What is theta/ what will theta be if it is measured?’ together with sharp answers ‘theta=u’ for some u. In the maximal case this gives a simple interpretation of eigenvectors.
Note that my approach here is fully epistemic. It has to do with an agent seeking knowledge. In the finite-dimensional case we may concentrate on state vectors that are eigenvectors of some meaningful operator. If this operator is associated with a maximal accessible variable theta, then in general these state vectors have interpretations as questions-and-answers as above.
To show this requires some mathematics, given in the attached article, where also a further discussion is given. What is lacking here, are arguments for the Schrödinger equation and for the Born formula from simple assumptions. I refer to my Springer book for these topics, but the Born formula is discussed in the attached article.
The discussion above was limited to the mind of a single observer A. Now the same mathematics applies to the following situation: There is a group of communicating observers, and jointly accessible or inaccessible variables in some context are associated with the group.
Note that in this whole discussion I have said nothing about the ontology. I am fully convinced that there exists an external world, but the detailed properties of this world may be outside our ability to find out. And QM as a model, although it is a very good model, can sometimes only give partial answers.
What I miss now, is some discussion around the above approach. I admit that the approach is unusual and that the postulates may seem a little abstract. However, for an outsider I will claim that it is much easier to understand these postulates than jumping right into the usual Hilbert space formalism. For those of us who have learned the formalism, the approach may in some sense require some unlearning first.
Inge